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The process of evaluating an employee’s current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards is called ________.

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1. The process of evaluating an employee’s current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards is called ________.

a. employee selection

b. recruitment

c. performance appraisal

d. organizational development

 

2. The “S” in the acronym for SMART goals stands for ________.

a. straightforward

b. specific

c. strategic

d. support

 

3. Who is the primary person responsible for doing the actual appraising of an employee’s performance?

a. the EEO contact person

b. the company appraiser

c. the employee’s direct supervisor

d. None of the above.

 

4. Because in most organizations there is a hierarchy of goals, employee performance standards should ________.

a. make sense in terms of the broader organizational goals

b. be standard

c. be decided by the top executive

d. All of the above.

 

5. Besides the supervisor, which of the following is available to managers as an alternative source of performance appraisal information?

a. the employee

b. rating committees

c. peers

d. All of the above.

 

6. Suppose you have five employees to rate. You make a chart of all possible pairs of employees for each trait being evaluated. Then, you indicate the better employee of the pair for each pair. Finally, you add up the number of positives for each employee. In this case, you have used the ________ method of performance appraisal.

a. forced distribution

b. alternation ranking

c. paired comparison

d. graphic ranking scale

 

 

7. To protect against bias claims when using the forced distribution method, employers should

________.

a. train raters to be objective

b. appoint a review committee to review any employee’s low ranking

c. consider using multiple raters in conjunction with the method

d. All of the above.

 

8. All of the following are advantages of using the critical incident method for appraising performance except that:

a. incidents can be tied to performance goals.

b. it does not include a numerical rating.

c. it provides examples of good performance.

d. it provides examples of poor performance.

 

9. What is the fourth step in the Management by Objectives Method?

a. set the organization’s goals

b. set departmental goals

c. discuss departmental goals

d. define expected results

 

10. One personality study focused on how individual traits influenced the evaluations that students gave their peers. Raters who scored higher on ________ tended to give their peers lower ratings.

a. openness

b. agreeableness

c. conscientiousness

d. extroversion

 

11. One way of reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals is to ________.

a. consider the purpose of the appraisal

b. be aware of the problem

c. train supervisors to avoid it

d. rank employees

 

12. When an employee’s personal characteristics, such as gender, influence a supervisor’s evaluation of his or her performance, the problem of ________ has occurred.

a. stereotyping

b. halo affect

c. central tendency

d. bias

 

 

 

 

 

13. When subordinates provide feedback for supervisors, the comments should be anonymous because identifiable responses tend to result in more ________.

a. critical ratings

b. inflated ratings

c. negative attitudes from managers receiving the feedback

d. All of the above.

 

14. The process through which someone becomes aware of personal skills, interests, knowledge, motivations; acquires information about opportunities; identifies career goals; and establishes action plans to attain those goals is called ________.

a. career management

b. career development

c. career planning

d. organizational development

 

15. Responsibility for career development should always be left to the ________.

a. employee

b. manager

c. career success team

d. supervisor

 

16. What is another term for 360-degree feedback?

a. multi-source feedback

b. upward feedback

c. wheel feedback

d. feedback loop

 

17. Direct financial payments include all of the following except:

a. insurance

b. salaries

c. incentives

d. wages

 

18. Which of the following is addressed by the Fair Labor Standards Act?

a. child labor

b. minimum wage

c. maximum hours

d. All of the above.

 

19. According to the Fair Labor Standards Act, if a worker covered by the act works more than 40 hours, he or she will receive overtime pay at a rate of ________ of normal pay for any hours worked over 40 in a workweek.

a. 150%

b. 50%

c. 125%

d. 100%

20. Which of the following occupations is exempt from overtime and minimum pay provisions stated in the Fair Labor Standards Act?

a. hourly cashiers

b. data entry

c. department heads

d. none of the above

 

21. Under which condition is it acceptable for employees of the opposite sex to receive different pay for doing roughly equivalent work?

a. it is never acceptable

b. when the difference exists because of a merit system

c. when the difference exists despite similar responsibility

d. when the difference exists despite equal skills

 

22. The ________ prohibits discriminating against employees who are 40 years of age and older in all aspects of employment, including compensation.

a. Civil Rights Act

b. Fair Labor Standards Act

c. Equal Pay Act

d. Age Discrimination in Employment Act

 

23. The ________ allows a firm to borrow against employee stock held in trust.

a. Employer Retirement Income Security Act

b. Fair Labor Standards Act

c. National Labor Relations Act

d. Civil Rights Act

 

24. A ________ is comprised of jobs of approximately equal difficulty or importance as established by job evaluation.

a. class

b. pay grade

c. benchmark

d. pay group

 

25. Which health benefit listed below is offered by almost all employers?

a. wellness program

b. chiropractic insurance

c. medical care insurance

d. mental health insurance

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